Teenage Drama Shows Essay -- Communication, Media, MTV

Teenagers are a significant segment of the American population. However, teenage drama shows did not make a significant emergence until the 1990’s. Before the 90’s, there were a handful of shows that had adolescents as supporting or main characters but the shows were not geared towards a teen audience. Never Too Young was one of the first so- called â€Å"teen drama† shows that premiered in 1965 and aired for a single season. The show had soap opera elements and chronicled the lives of teenagers. Teen dramas as opposed to teen situation comedies have soap opera elements to them. Some teen dramas can be understood in relation to the long-running serial form in their emphasis on repetition and deferral of resolution, and in this respect, are close to soap opera in narrative organization (Moseley 54). A school setting or home residence is where many teen dramas take place. Similar to soap operas, teen dramas also center around place, character, and relationships, a nd emotional drama is often heightened through the use of close-up and (generally romantic pop) scoring (Moseley 54). Teen drama is geared towards an adolescent audience, therefore episodes address teenage issues: sex, drugs, self -esteem, love, and school violence. The short-lived teen drama, My So Called Life dealt with these issues but due to low ratings was cancelled. My So Called Life was a realistic and dynamic show that should not have been terminated abruptly. One of the original teen dramas, Degrassi Junior High and later Degrassi High, became very popular in both Canada and the US while airing on PBS in the late 80s and early 90s (Silverblatt 21).Several years after Degrassi's premiere, Darren Star created Beverly Hills, 90210 in 1990, along with famous producer Aar... ...MSCL. It was not overly dramatic but not overly artificial in its depiction of teenagers and their parents. There were not many shows of its kind in the mid 1990’s and there are still not many teen dramas of its kind today. In general, there are not many teen dramas period. Many of the teen shows are sitcoms or situation comedies. The few teen dramas on television include Gossip Girl, Vampire Diaries, and The Secret Life of the American Teenager. Out of these three shows, only The Secret Life of the American Teenager has any broad realism to it. Gossip Girl highlights the life of wealthy teenagers and Vampire Diaries is a fantasy show. My So Called Life had a good balance of addressing real topics like homosexuality, sexual harassment, parental arguing, and drug use in a realistic fashion. MSCL captured the anxiety of teen life without becoming overly idealistic. Teenage Drama Shows Essay -- Communication, Media, MTV Teenagers are a significant segment of the American population. However, teenage drama shows did not make a significant emergence until the 1990’s. Before the 90’s, there were a handful of shows that had adolescents as supporting or main characters but the shows were not geared towards a teen audience. Never Too Young was one of the first so- called â€Å"teen drama† shows that premiered in 1965 and aired for a single season. The show had soap opera elements and chronicled the lives of teenagers. Teen dramas as opposed to teen situation comedies have soap opera elements to them. Some teen dramas can be understood in relation to the long-running serial form in their emphasis on repetition and deferral of resolution, and in this respect, are close to soap opera in narrative organization (Moseley 54). A school setting or home residence is where many teen dramas take place. Similar to soap operas, teen dramas also center around place, character, and relationships, a nd emotional drama is often heightened through the use of close-up and (generally romantic pop) scoring (Moseley 54). Teen drama is geared towards an adolescent audience, therefore episodes address teenage issues: sex, drugs, self -esteem, love, and school violence. The short-lived teen drama, My So Called Life dealt with these issues but due to low ratings was cancelled. My So Called Life was a realistic and dynamic show that should not have been terminated abruptly. One of the original teen dramas, Degrassi Junior High and later Degrassi High, became very popular in both Canada and the US while airing on PBS in the late 80s and early 90s (Silverblatt 21).Several years after Degrassi's premiere, Darren Star created Beverly Hills, 90210 in 1990, along with famous producer Aar... ...MSCL. It was not overly dramatic but not overly artificial in its depiction of teenagers and their parents. There were not many shows of its kind in the mid 1990’s and there are still not many teen dramas of its kind today. In general, there are not many teen dramas period. Many of the teen shows are sitcoms or situation comedies. The few teen dramas on television include Gossip Girl, Vampire Diaries, and The Secret Life of the American Teenager. Out of these three shows, only The Secret Life of the American Teenager has any broad realism to it. Gossip Girl highlights the life of wealthy teenagers and Vampire Diaries is a fantasy show. My So Called Life had a good balance of addressing real topics like homosexuality, sexual harassment, parental arguing, and drug use in a realistic fashion. MSCL captured the anxiety of teen life without becoming overly idealistic.

Mitosis Replication of Eukaryotic Cells

Exercise 13MITOSIS: REPLICATION OF EUKARYOTIC CELLS  ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS1.a. Mitosis and cytokinesis are often referred to collectively as â€Å"cellular division. † Why are they more accurately called cellular replication? The result of mitosis is production of two cells (replicates) identical to the parent cell. The genetic material is replicated rather than divided.b. Does the cell cycle have a beginning and an end? The organization of our study of cellular events indicates a beginning and end, but the events continue to repeat.2.a. If a nucleus has eight chromosomes during interphase, how many chromosomes does it have during metaphase? During metaphase there are 8 double-stranded chromosomes.b. How many does it have after mitosis is complete? After mitosis (and separation of chromatids) there are 16 chromosomes distributed between two nuclei.3.a. Why would we choose an embryonic mass of cells for procedure 13. 3 in which to study the stages of mitosis? embryonic cells a re replicating and growing rapidlyb. Which stage of mitosis most often is associated with the beginning of cytokinesis? usually late anaphase4.a. What region of a root has the most mitotic activity? meristem, just above capb. Why is pinching of the cytoplasm inadequate for cytokinesis in plant cells? Pinching of cytoplasm is not appropriate for rigid cell walls.c. Locate a plant cell in late telophase. What is the volume of the new cells relative to a mature cell? Each cell is smaller (approximately 1/2) than the parent cell.5.a. Why are the combined data from all the class members more meaningful than your results alone? Combined results reduce random error.b. How accurate were your predictions for length of each stage of mitosis? probably not closec. What sources of error can you list for this technique to determine the time elapsed during each stage of mitosis? ariation in onion roots; student's ability to distinguish stages; microscopic cross sections of roots may or may not pas s through the nuclear materialExercise 14MEIOSIS: REDUCTION DIVISION AND GAMETOGENESIS ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS1. a. Why would shuffling genetic material and producing new combinations of characteristics be advantageous to a species? New genetic combinations allow adaptation to changing environments.b. When would it be deleterious? New combinations always produce a percentage of disadvantageous characteristics; the risk of bad gene combinations may be inappropriate in a stable, beneficial environment.2. a.Synapsis occurs after chromosomal DNA has replicated. How many chromatids are involved in crossing-over of a homologous pair of chromosomes?b. Suppose synapsis occurred between two homologous chromosomes, and one had alleles for blue eyes and brown hair and the other had alleles for green eyes and blonde hair. How many different combinations of these alleles would be possible? 4 Remember that crossing-over does not necessarily occur between the loci, so the original combinations may re main intact. 3. a. If a nucleus has eight chromosomes when it begins meiosis, how many chromosomes does it have after telophase I? Telophase II? with two chromatids each; 4 with one chromatid eachb. What are the major differences between the events of meiosis and mitosis? (see table 14. 2)c. What are some minor differences, and why do you consider them minor? minor differences would be those unrelated to chromosomal events4. a. During gametogenesis a sperm cell undergoes considerable structural change. What are the basics of sperm structure and how does it relate to function? The basics include small head with nucleus; an acrosomal process with enzymes to digest the outer membranes of the egg; a head and neck rich in mitochondria; and tail used to propel the cell to the egg.b. What is the advantage of producing sperm in a system of tubes rather than in solid tissue? because sperm cells can be expelled easily from the body through a system of tubesc. What is each strand of a double-s tranded chromosome called? chromatid5. How would retaining extra cytoplasm enhance survival of a developing oocyte? More cytoplasm contains more nutrients to ensure survival.6. a. What are the relative sizes of oocytes in a dormant follicle, a growing follicle, and a Graafian follicle? dormant oocyte 1X, growing oocyte 5X, mature oocyte 25Xb. Are polar bodies visible in your prepared slide of a cat ovary? Why or why not? probably not, because cells in the ovary usually have not finished meiosis I, and polar bodies disintegrate rapidly DNA FINGERPRINTING LABRestriction Digestion of DNA Samples Observation QuestionsDescribe the samples of DNA (physical properties). The DNA samples are clear, colorless liquid samples.Is there any observable difference between the samples of DNA? No. All samples appear similar.Describe the appearance of the restriction endonuclease mix. The restriction enzymes appear to be clear, colorless liquids.Restriction Digestion of DNA Samples Review QuestionsBef ore you incubated your samples, describe any visible signs of change in the contents of the tubes containing the DNA combined with the restriction enzymes. DNA + EcoRI/PstI enzyme mix: No visible change apparent in the tubes.Can you see any evidence to indicate that your samples of DNA were fragmented or altered in any way by the addition of EcoRI/PstI? Explain. No. No visible change apparent in the tubes.In the absence of visible evidence of change, is it still possible that the DNA samples were fragmented? Explain your reasoning. Yes. They may be chemically changed but the changes may not be visible. Enzymes may have cut the DNA.After a 24 hour incubation period, are there any visible clues that the restriction enzymes may have in some way changed the DNA in any of the tubes? Explain your reasoning. No. No visible change apparent in the tubes but the enzymes may have cut the DNA. The reactions are at the molecular level and too small to be seen.Electrophoresis of Your DNA Samples Review QuestionsThe electrophoresis apparatus creates an electrical field [positive and negative ends of the gel]. DNA molecules are negatively charged. To which pole of the electrophoresis field would you expect DNA to migrate (+ or -)? Explain. Positive.What color represents the negative pole? Black.After DNA samples are loaded in wells, they are â€Å"forced† to move through the gel matrix. Which size fragment (large vs small) would you expect to move toward the opposite end of the gel most quickly? Explain. Smaller. There is less resistance to their movement through the gel matrix.Which fragments are expected to travel the shortest distance [remain closest to the well]? Explain. Larger. There is more resistance to their movement through the gel matrix.Lesson 4 Thought QuestionsWhat can you assume is contained within each band? DNA fragments.If this were a fingerprinting gel, then how many kinds (samples) of DNA can you assume were placed in each separate well? One.What wo uld be a logical explanation as to why there is more than one band of DNA for each of the samples? The DNA must have been cut into fragments by restriction enzymes.What probably caused the DNA to become fragmented? The chemical action of the restriction enzymes cutting at specific base sequences.Which of the DNA samples have the same number of restriction sites for the restriction endonuclease used? Write the lane numbers.Lanes 2, 3, and 4 (CS, S1, and S2).Which sample has the smallest DNA fragment? The sample in lane 5 (S3).How many restriction sites were there in lane three? Two sites that cut the sample into two fragments.Which DNA samples appear to have been â€Å"cut† into the same number and size of fragments? Lanes 2 and 4 (CS and S2).Based on your analysis of the photograph, what is your conclusion about the DNA samples in the photograph? Do any of the samples seem to be from the same source. If so which ones? Describe the evidence that supports your conclusion.The DN A samples in lanes 2 and 4 (CS and S2) are from the same individual because they have identical restrictions sites that yield identical fragments.DNA Fingerprinting: OverviewWhat are we trying to determine? Restate the central question. We are trying to determine if samples of DNA that we were provided with are from the same individual or from different individuals.Which of your DNA samples were fragmented? What would your gel look like if the DNA were not fragmented? The number of fragmented samples will vary. They will have one band on the gel if the DNA was not cut.What caused the DNA to become fragmented? The addition of restriction enzymes.What determines where a restriction endonuclease will â€Å"cut† a DNA molecule? A special sequence of bases on the DNA called restriction sites.A restriction endonuclease â€Å"cuts† two DNA molecules at the same location. What can you assume is identical about the molecules at that location? The restriction sites are identical .Do any of your suspect samples appear to have EcoRI or PstI recognition sites at the same location as the DNA from the crime scene? The samples in lanes 2 and 5 match (CS and S3).Based on the above analysis, do any of the suspect samples of DNA seem to be from the same individual as the DNA from the crime scene? Describe the scientific evidence that supports your conclusion. The CS and S3 samples appear to be identical. They both produce similar banding patterns on the gel.Exercise 23 SURVEY OF BACTERIA: KINGDOMS ARCHAEBACTERIA AND BACTERIA ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS1. a. Why is it important that bacteria release nutrients? Nutrients must be released and recycled for use by other living organisms. If nutrients were not released by decomposers, the nutrients would all eventually be locked up in dead, non-decaying tissue.b. What term would best describe heterotrophic bacteria that feed on living tissue? parasitism2. What is the shape and size of each bacterial colony? E. coli—medium rod; B. megaterium—large rod; R. rubrum—small and thin spirillum 3. a. Which type of bacteria is most prevalent in the sample from your teeth? How do you know? probably gram positive because most of the cells are purpleb. Is Bacillus megaterium gram positive or gram negative? gram positive4. a. Where are the bacteria? Are they between cells or inside cells? inside the cellsb. Why is this relationship between a plant and bacterium called mutualism? Both partners benefit from the association.c. How does Rhizobium benefit from this association? nutrients from the hostd. How does the host plant benefit from the association? nitrogen supply from the bacterium5. Based on their appearance, which drugs or chemicals retard the growth of bacteria? depends on the drugs that you use6. Do all cells of a trichome of Oscillatoria appear similar? yes7. a. Do adjacent cells share a common sheath? usuallyb. What do you suppose is the function of the sheath? protectionc. Do clusters of Gloeocapsa represent multicellular organisms? Why or why not?No, the cells are not obligate dependents—they can operate independently; the protoplasms of the cells are not connected; the aggregation of cells can be broken into individual cells without killing the cells.8. a. How is the shape of Merismopedia different from other cyanobacteria you studied in this exercise? Merismopedia is a flat, square colony one cell thick.b. How would a colony attain this shape? equal divisions in two planesExercise 24Survey of Kingdom Protista: The Algae ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS1. a. Is the movement of Chlamydomonas smooth or does it appear jerky? relatively smoothb. Can you see both flagella? You may need to reduce the light intensity to see flagella. probably not, depends on student's microscopec. How does methylcellulose affect movement of Chlamydomonas? slows it downd. How does the stigma help Chlamydomonas survive? detects light2. a. Under what environmental conditions would a zygote not u ndergo meiosis immediately? unfavorable conditionsb. Are spores of Chlamydomonas haploid or diploid? haploidc. Which portions of the life cycle of Chlamydomonas are haploid? all portions from meiosis to syngamyd. Which are diploid? all portions from syngamy to meiosis3. a. Are the filaments of Spirogyra branched? nob. What is the shape of the chloroplasts of Spirogyra? spiralc. Can you see any conjugation tubes? If you can't, examine the prepared slides that demonstrate these structures. probably not seen on live material, but easily seen on prepared materiald. How do you think that Spirogyra reproduces asexually? mitosis and fragmentation4. a. How is Cladophora morphologically similar to Spirogyra. How is it different? They are both filaments, but Cladophora is branched and Spirogyra is unbranched.b. What is the shape of its chloroplasts? broad and dispersed5. a. What is oogamy? ne gamete (sperm) is small and motile, the other gamete (egg) is larger and nonmotileb. What are the tin y spheres inside the larger sphere of Volvox? daughter coloniesc. How do you suppose they get out? Parent colonies turn inside out or rupture.d. How do you think the number of cells in a young Volvox colony compares to the number in a mature colony? less than or equal to the number in the mature colony6.a. How is Fucus' structure different from green algae that you have examined earlier in this exercise? Fucus is larger, more parenchymatous, and flattened.b. Are all portions of the thallus photosynthetic?How can you tell? probably not, due to different concentrations of pigmentsc. Considering where Fucus lives, what do you think is the function of its gelatinous sheath? Since Fucus lives in intertidal regions, the gelatinous sheath probably prevents desiccation.d. Are the swollen structures solid masses or are they empty? essentially empty7.a. Are the gametes of Fucus isogamous or oogamous? oogamousb. How does the structure of tissue surrounding the reproductive structures compare w ith that of green algae? Tissues in brown algae are more complex.8. a. Can you see any pores in the walls of diatoms? robably yesb. Are any of the diatoms moving? possiblyc. If diatoms lack flagella, how do you explain their motility? gliding on a gelatinous secretiond. How would diatomaceous earth compare to sand as a swimming pool filter material? Which would be better and why? Diatomaceous earth would be better because it is finer. How do the shapes of dinoflagellates compare with other unicellular algae that you have observed in this exercise? bizarre and varied What is the function of the eyespot of Euglena? detect lightExercise 25 SURVEY OF KINGDOM PROTISTA: PROTOZOA AND SLIME MOLDS ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS1. a. Can you detect moving cytoplasm in the extending pseudopods of Amoeba? probably yesb. What do you suppose the Amoeba is moving toward or away from? light or foodc. How does the Amoeba respond to nutrient broth? usually increased movementd. Approximately how long would it t ake an Amoeba to move across the field of view on low power? a few minutese. Why is a contractile vacuole of a protozoan often more difficult to see than a food vacuole? A contractile vacuole contains clear excretory fluid, while food vacuoles contain particulate matter.f. Why would excess water tend to accumulate in Amoeba? ecause solute concentration in the amoeba is higher than the concentration in the environment and water diffuses into the cell2. How could fossilized forams in different geological layers of rock or sediment indicate the probability of finding oil? Different species are present in different environmental conditions; therefore, a list of species may include those associated with environmental conditions appropriate for oil formation.3. a. How large is a trypanosome relative to an Amoeba? much smallerb. What alga does a trypanosome superficially resemble? Euglena4. a. Are cilia visible on living or prepared Paramecium? probably notb.Does Paramecium rotate as it mo ves? yesc. How does movement of Paramecium compare with that of Amoeba? With a flagellated alga? Paramecium moves much faster than Amoeba, but not as fast as many flagellated species.5. a. Why is the division of Paramecium cells called â€Å"transverse† fission? The plane of separation is transverse to the longitudinal axis.b. Why is transverse fission not a sexual process? it doesn't recombine genesc. What are the advantages and disadvantages of conjugation in Paramecium? disadvantages: conjugation requires more than one organism and is energy consuming advantage: creation of new genetic combinations6. a. What is the value or function of the rapid contraction stalk of Vorticella? avoid predationb. What is the probable function of the moving cilia of Vorticella? create water currents bringing food particles to the organism7. a. Is cytoplasmic movement of Physarum apparent? probably yesb. Is the movement in a particular direction? probably not, but on moist medium they may app arently move toward foodc. What is a possible function of cytoplasmic movement in Physarum? avoid light, find foodExercise 26 SURVEY OF KINGDOM FUNGI: MOLDS, SAC FUNGI, MUSHROOMS, AND LICHENS ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS1. a. Are hyphae present? ob. Are the cells motile? yes2. a. How many species of mold are on the bread? 2, 3, or 4b. Do any of the molds on the bread have hyphae modified as sporangiophores and sporangia? probably yesc. Is pigment distributed uniformly in each mycelium? If not, where is the pigment concentrated in each mold? No, pigment is usually concentrated in sporangia.d. What is the adaptive significance of spores forming on ends of upright filaments rather than closer to the protective substrate? to enhance distribution of released spores3. a. In what structure is the dark pigment of Rhizopus concentrated? sporangiab.Is Rhizopus reproducing sexually as well as asexually in the same petri dish? How can you tell? Yes (if students are provided with cultures with two strai ns); because sporangia as well as zygospores are visible.4. What is the relative size of Penicillium hyphae compared to Rhizopus hyphae? Penicillium hyphae are much smaller than Rhizopus hyphae.5. a. Do you see chains of yeast cells produced by budding? probably yesb. How is the structure of yeast hyphae different from that of molds? Yeast hyphae are greatly reduced to a chain of one or two cells, while molds are very long and multicellular. 6. What is the difference between dikaryotic and diploid cells? Dikaryotic cells have two distinct nuclei, each with a haploid (single) set of chromosomes; a diploid cell has one nucleus with a diploid (double set of chromosomes).7. How many spores would you estimate are present on the gills of a single cap of Coprinus? Remember that a prepared slide shows only a cross section. many, many thousands8. a. What is the value of photosynthetic algae to the growth of a fungus in a lichen? Algae conduct photosynthesis and produce an energy rich carbon source, (i. e. , glucose).b. Would you expect lichens to grow best in rural or urban environments? Why? best in rural environments because they are so sensitive to air pollutionExercise 27 SURVEY OF THE PLANT KINGDOM: LIVERWORTS, MOSSES, AND HORNWORTS OF PHYLA HEPATICOPHYTA, BRYOPHYTA, AND ANTHOCEROPHYTA ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS1. What are the functions of rhizoids? anchorage, possibly absorption2. What is the function of these pores? gas exchange3. How do the positions of the archegonium and antheridium relate to their reproductive function? Antheridia need to disperse sperm and are upright with pores on top of the antheridial disk; archegonia are protected under the surface of the archegonial disk.4. a. What is the function of the foot? nutrient transport from gametophyte to sporophyteb. Are spores haploid or diploid? haploidc. What is the functional significance of the response of elaters to moisture? dispersal of spores5. a. How many cells thick is the leaflet? one or twob. Is there a midrib? Vein? yesc. Are stomata or pores visible on the leaf surface? probably notd. How does the symmetry of a moss gametophyte compare with that of a liverwort gametophyte? Mosses are radially symmetrical and liverworts are bilaterally symmetrical. 6. a. How many times its own weight did the moss absorb? or more timesb. How does this compare with the paper towel? much greaterc. Why is Sphagnum often used in shipping items that must be kept moist? because it holds water so well7. Where is the egg located in the archegonium? egg is enlarged cell at base of neck8. Are sperm haploid or diploid? haploid9. Is the sporophyte more prominent in mosses or liverworts? mosses10. What is the adaptive significance of the seta of the sporophyte growing well above the mat of the gametophyte? better dispersal11. a. What process produces spores? meiosisb. Is the capsule haploid or diploid? diploid12. Can you think of any evolutionary implications of the similarity between a moss protonema and a filamentous green alga? both have similar form and live in similar habitat, which suggests that selective pressures for developing these structures may have been similarExercise 28 SURVEY OF THE PLANT KINGDOM: SEEDLESS VASCULAR PLANTS OF PHYLA PTEROPHYTA, LYCOPHYTA, PSILOPHYTA, AND SPHENOPHYTA ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS1.a. Which parts of the life cycle are haploid? gametophyteb. Which are diploid? sporophyte2.a. How many veins are present in each frond? usually 1 large veinb. What tissues compose a vein? ylem and phloemc. What is the function of the stalk? The blade? The pinnae? stalk—support; blade and pinnae—photosynthesis3.a. What is the function of an annulus? breaking point for opening sporangiumb. Are any spores in the sporangium? probably so4.a. Did the application of acetone cause the spores of the fern to disperse? probably yesb. How is the mechanism for spore dispersal in ferns similar to that of bryophytes? Moisture causes changes in cell (elater or annulus) shap e to release spores.5.a. Is the prothallium haploid or diploid? haploidb. Is the prothallium sporophyte or gametophyte? gametophyte6. a.What is the adaptive significance of having these structures on the lower surface of the prothallium rather than on the upper surface? protection from desiccationb. What is the adaptive significance of having sperm and egg produced at different times? discourages inbreeding7. How do Salvinia and Azolla differ from other ferns you've examined earlier? smaller, aquatic8. a. What type of branching characterizes Psilotum? dichotomousb. Are any roots present? noc. Are any leaves present? nod. Where are the sporangia? at end of short lateral branchese. Where does photosynthesis occur in Psilotum? stem9.a. Where are the leaves? n rings along stemb. What part of the plant is photosynthetic? stemc. Which part of the life cycle of Equisetum is dominant, the sporophyte or gametophyte? sporophyte10.a. How does strobili formation in Equisetum compare with Lycopo dium and Selaginella? sporangia of Lycopodium and Selaginella are on microphyllsb. How do elaters aid in the dispersal of spores? moves spores11. a. How could a rhizome be involved in asexual reproduction? produces new growth, which could be separated from parent plant (e. g. , via fragmentation), thereby resulting in a new individualb. How is a rhizome different from a rhizoid? hizome is underground stem; rhizoid is small, rootlike structurec. Does the rhizome have leaves? depends on specimen, but probably yesd. What is the shape and size of the leaves? thin, elongate, arranged in spiralse. What is the significance of this form of the leaves? intercept light for photosynthesisf. Is a midvein visible? yes g. What does the word â€Å"evergreen† mean? does not lose all of its leaves seasonallyh. Is â€Å"evergreenness† a good characteristic for classifying plants? Why or why not? No, unrelated plants are evergreen.12. a. How many sporangia occur on each sporophyll of Lyc opodium? oneb.Can you see why spores of Lycopodium are sometimes called â€Å"vegetable sulfur†? yesc. Why are the spores a good, dry lubricant? powdery; certain species produce some oild. Which is the dominant part of the Lycopodium life cycle, the sporophyte or gametophyte? sporophyte13. a. Are spores of Selaginella similar in size? nob. What is this condition called? heterosporousc. What is the functional significance of the difference in the appearance of dehydrated and rehydrated Selaginella? water conservation and survival during droughtd. Can you see why these plants are sometimes referred to as â€Å"resurrection plants†? yes Mitosis Replication of Eukaryotic Cells Exercise 13MITOSIS: REPLICATION OF EUKARYOTIC CELLS  ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS1.a. Mitosis and cytokinesis are often referred to collectively as â€Å"cellular division. † Why are they more accurately called cellular replication? The result of mitosis is production of two cells (replicates) identical to the parent cell. The genetic material is replicated rather than divided.b. Does the cell cycle have a beginning and an end? The organization of our study of cellular events indicates a beginning and end, but the events continue to repeat.2.a. If a nucleus has eight chromosomes during interphase, how many chromosomes does it have during metaphase? During metaphase there are 8 double-stranded chromosomes.b. How many does it have after mitosis is complete? After mitosis (and separation of chromatids) there are 16 chromosomes distributed between two nuclei.3.a. Why would we choose an embryonic mass of cells for procedure 13. 3 in which to study the stages of mitosis? embryonic cells a re replicating and growing rapidlyb. Which stage of mitosis most often is associated with the beginning of cytokinesis? usually late anaphase4.a. What region of a root has the most mitotic activity? meristem, just above capb. Why is pinching of the cytoplasm inadequate for cytokinesis in plant cells? Pinching of cytoplasm is not appropriate for rigid cell walls.c. Locate a plant cell in late telophase. What is the volume of the new cells relative to a mature cell? Each cell is smaller (approximately 1/2) than the parent cell.5.a. Why are the combined data from all the class members more meaningful than your results alone? Combined results reduce random error.b. How accurate were your predictions for length of each stage of mitosis? probably not closec. What sources of error can you list for this technique to determine the time elapsed during each stage of mitosis? ariation in onion roots; student's ability to distinguish stages; microscopic cross sections of roots may or may not pas s through the nuclear materialExercise 14MEIOSIS: REDUCTION DIVISION AND GAMETOGENESIS ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS1. a. Why would shuffling genetic material and producing new combinations of characteristics be advantageous to a species? New genetic combinations allow adaptation to changing environments.b. When would it be deleterious? New combinations always produce a percentage of disadvantageous characteristics; the risk of bad gene combinations may be inappropriate in a stable, beneficial environment.2. a.Synapsis occurs after chromosomal DNA has replicated. How many chromatids are involved in crossing-over of a homologous pair of chromosomes?b. Suppose synapsis occurred between two homologous chromosomes, and one had alleles for blue eyes and brown hair and the other had alleles for green eyes and blonde hair. How many different combinations of these alleles would be possible? 4 Remember that crossing-over does not necessarily occur between the loci, so the original combinations may re main intact. 3. a. If a nucleus has eight chromosomes when it begins meiosis, how many chromosomes does it have after telophase I? Telophase II? with two chromatids each; 4 with one chromatid eachb. What are the major differences between the events of meiosis and mitosis? (see table 14. 2)c. What are some minor differences, and why do you consider them minor? minor differences would be those unrelated to chromosomal events4. a. During gametogenesis a sperm cell undergoes considerable structural change. What are the basics of sperm structure and how does it relate to function? The basics include small head with nucleus; an acrosomal process with enzymes to digest the outer membranes of the egg; a head and neck rich in mitochondria; and tail used to propel the cell to the egg.b. What is the advantage of producing sperm in a system of tubes rather than in solid tissue? because sperm cells can be expelled easily from the body through a system of tubesc. What is each strand of a double-s tranded chromosome called? chromatid5. How would retaining extra cytoplasm enhance survival of a developing oocyte? More cytoplasm contains more nutrients to ensure survival.6. a. What are the relative sizes of oocytes in a dormant follicle, a growing follicle, and a Graafian follicle? dormant oocyte 1X, growing oocyte 5X, mature oocyte 25Xb. Are polar bodies visible in your prepared slide of a cat ovary? Why or why not? probably not, because cells in the ovary usually have not finished meiosis I, and polar bodies disintegrate rapidly DNA FINGERPRINTING LABRestriction Digestion of DNA Samples Observation QuestionsDescribe the samples of DNA (physical properties). The DNA samples are clear, colorless liquid samples.Is there any observable difference between the samples of DNA? No. All samples appear similar.Describe the appearance of the restriction endonuclease mix. The restriction enzymes appear to be clear, colorless liquids.Restriction Digestion of DNA Samples Review QuestionsBef ore you incubated your samples, describe any visible signs of change in the contents of the tubes containing the DNA combined with the restriction enzymes. DNA + EcoRI/PstI enzyme mix: No visible change apparent in the tubes.Can you see any evidence to indicate that your samples of DNA were fragmented or altered in any way by the addition of EcoRI/PstI? Explain. No. No visible change apparent in the tubes.In the absence of visible evidence of change, is it still possible that the DNA samples were fragmented? Explain your reasoning. Yes. They may be chemically changed but the changes may not be visible. Enzymes may have cut the DNA.After a 24 hour incubation period, are there any visible clues that the restriction enzymes may have in some way changed the DNA in any of the tubes? Explain your reasoning. No. No visible change apparent in the tubes but the enzymes may have cut the DNA. The reactions are at the molecular level and too small to be seen.Electrophoresis of Your DNA Samples Review QuestionsThe electrophoresis apparatus creates an electrical field [positive and negative ends of the gel]. DNA molecules are negatively charged. To which pole of the electrophoresis field would you expect DNA to migrate (+ or -)? Explain. Positive.What color represents the negative pole? Black.After DNA samples are loaded in wells, they are â€Å"forced† to move through the gel matrix. Which size fragment (large vs small) would you expect to move toward the opposite end of the gel most quickly? Explain. Smaller. There is less resistance to their movement through the gel matrix.Which fragments are expected to travel the shortest distance [remain closest to the well]? Explain. Larger. There is more resistance to their movement through the gel matrix.Lesson 4 Thought QuestionsWhat can you assume is contained within each band? DNA fragments.If this were a fingerprinting gel, then how many kinds (samples) of DNA can you assume were placed in each separate well? One.What wo uld be a logical explanation as to why there is more than one band of DNA for each of the samples? The DNA must have been cut into fragments by restriction enzymes.What probably caused the DNA to become fragmented? The chemical action of the restriction enzymes cutting at specific base sequences.Which of the DNA samples have the same number of restriction sites for the restriction endonuclease used? Write the lane numbers.Lanes 2, 3, and 4 (CS, S1, and S2).Which sample has the smallest DNA fragment? The sample in lane 5 (S3).How many restriction sites were there in lane three? Two sites that cut the sample into two fragments.Which DNA samples appear to have been â€Å"cut† into the same number and size of fragments? Lanes 2 and 4 (CS and S2).Based on your analysis of the photograph, what is your conclusion about the DNA samples in the photograph? Do any of the samples seem to be from the same source. If so which ones? Describe the evidence that supports your conclusion.The DN A samples in lanes 2 and 4 (CS and S2) are from the same individual because they have identical restrictions sites that yield identical fragments.DNA Fingerprinting: OverviewWhat are we trying to determine? Restate the central question. We are trying to determine if samples of DNA that we were provided with are from the same individual or from different individuals.Which of your DNA samples were fragmented? What would your gel look like if the DNA were not fragmented? The number of fragmented samples will vary. They will have one band on the gel if the DNA was not cut.What caused the DNA to become fragmented? The addition of restriction enzymes.What determines where a restriction endonuclease will â€Å"cut† a DNA molecule? A special sequence of bases on the DNA called restriction sites.A restriction endonuclease â€Å"cuts† two DNA molecules at the same location. What can you assume is identical about the molecules at that location? The restriction sites are identical .Do any of your suspect samples appear to have EcoRI or PstI recognition sites at the same location as the DNA from the crime scene? The samples in lanes 2 and 5 match (CS and S3).Based on the above analysis, do any of the suspect samples of DNA seem to be from the same individual as the DNA from the crime scene? Describe the scientific evidence that supports your conclusion. The CS and S3 samples appear to be identical. They both produce similar banding patterns on the gel.Exercise 23 SURVEY OF BACTERIA: KINGDOMS ARCHAEBACTERIA AND BACTERIA ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS1. a. Why is it important that bacteria release nutrients? Nutrients must be released and recycled for use by other living organisms. If nutrients were not released by decomposers, the nutrients would all eventually be locked up in dead, non-decaying tissue.b. What term would best describe heterotrophic bacteria that feed on living tissue? parasitism2. What is the shape and size of each bacterial colony? E. coli—medium rod; B. megaterium—large rod; R. rubrum—small and thin spirillum 3. a. Which type of bacteria is most prevalent in the sample from your teeth? How do you know? probably gram positive because most of the cells are purpleb. Is Bacillus megaterium gram positive or gram negative? gram positive4. a. Where are the bacteria? Are they between cells or inside cells? inside the cellsb. Why is this relationship between a plant and bacterium called mutualism? Both partners benefit from the association.c. How does Rhizobium benefit from this association? nutrients from the hostd. How does the host plant benefit from the association? nitrogen supply from the bacterium5. Based on their appearance, which drugs or chemicals retard the growth of bacteria? depends on the drugs that you use6. Do all cells of a trichome of Oscillatoria appear similar? yes7. a. Do adjacent cells share a common sheath? usuallyb. What do you suppose is the function of the sheath? protectionc. Do clusters of Gloeocapsa represent multicellular organisms? Why or why not?No, the cells are not obligate dependents—they can operate independently; the protoplasms of the cells are not connected; the aggregation of cells can be broken into individual cells without killing the cells.8. a. How is the shape of Merismopedia different from other cyanobacteria you studied in this exercise? Merismopedia is a flat, square colony one cell thick.b. How would a colony attain this shape? equal divisions in two planesExercise 24Survey of Kingdom Protista: The Algae ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS1. a. Is the movement of Chlamydomonas smooth or does it appear jerky? relatively smoothb. Can you see both flagella? You may need to reduce the light intensity to see flagella. probably not, depends on student's microscopec. How does methylcellulose affect movement of Chlamydomonas? slows it downd. How does the stigma help Chlamydomonas survive? detects light2. a. Under what environmental conditions would a zygote not u ndergo meiosis immediately? unfavorable conditionsb. Are spores of Chlamydomonas haploid or diploid? haploidc. Which portions of the life cycle of Chlamydomonas are haploid? all portions from meiosis to syngamyd. Which are diploid? all portions from syngamy to meiosis3. a. Are the filaments of Spirogyra branched? nob. What is the shape of the chloroplasts of Spirogyra? spiralc. Can you see any conjugation tubes? If you can't, examine the prepared slides that demonstrate these structures. probably not seen on live material, but easily seen on prepared materiald. How do you think that Spirogyra reproduces asexually? mitosis and fragmentation4. a. How is Cladophora morphologically similar to Spirogyra. How is it different? They are both filaments, but Cladophora is branched and Spirogyra is unbranched.b. What is the shape of its chloroplasts? broad and dispersed5. a. What is oogamy? ne gamete (sperm) is small and motile, the other gamete (egg) is larger and nonmotileb. What are the tin y spheres inside the larger sphere of Volvox? daughter coloniesc. How do you suppose they get out? Parent colonies turn inside out or rupture.d. How do you think the number of cells in a young Volvox colony compares to the number in a mature colony? less than or equal to the number in the mature colony6.a. How is Fucus' structure different from green algae that you have examined earlier in this exercise? Fucus is larger, more parenchymatous, and flattened.b. Are all portions of the thallus photosynthetic?How can you tell? probably not, due to different concentrations of pigmentsc. Considering where Fucus lives, what do you think is the function of its gelatinous sheath? Since Fucus lives in intertidal regions, the gelatinous sheath probably prevents desiccation.d. Are the swollen structures solid masses or are they empty? essentially empty7.a. Are the gametes of Fucus isogamous or oogamous? oogamousb. How does the structure of tissue surrounding the reproductive structures compare w ith that of green algae? Tissues in brown algae are more complex.8. a. Can you see any pores in the walls of diatoms? robably yesb. Are any of the diatoms moving? possiblyc. If diatoms lack flagella, how do you explain their motility? gliding on a gelatinous secretiond. How would diatomaceous earth compare to sand as a swimming pool filter material? Which would be better and why? Diatomaceous earth would be better because it is finer. How do the shapes of dinoflagellates compare with other unicellular algae that you have observed in this exercise? bizarre and varied What is the function of the eyespot of Euglena? detect lightExercise 25 SURVEY OF KINGDOM PROTISTA: PROTOZOA AND SLIME MOLDS ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS1. a. Can you detect moving cytoplasm in the extending pseudopods of Amoeba? probably yesb. What do you suppose the Amoeba is moving toward or away from? light or foodc. How does the Amoeba respond to nutrient broth? usually increased movementd. Approximately how long would it t ake an Amoeba to move across the field of view on low power? a few minutese. Why is a contractile vacuole of a protozoan often more difficult to see than a food vacuole? A contractile vacuole contains clear excretory fluid, while food vacuoles contain particulate matter.f. Why would excess water tend to accumulate in Amoeba? ecause solute concentration in the amoeba is higher than the concentration in the environment and water diffuses into the cell2. How could fossilized forams in different geological layers of rock or sediment indicate the probability of finding oil? Different species are present in different environmental conditions; therefore, a list of species may include those associated with environmental conditions appropriate for oil formation.3. a. How large is a trypanosome relative to an Amoeba? much smallerb. What alga does a trypanosome superficially resemble? Euglena4. a. Are cilia visible on living or prepared Paramecium? probably notb.Does Paramecium rotate as it mo ves? yesc. How does movement of Paramecium compare with that of Amoeba? With a flagellated alga? Paramecium moves much faster than Amoeba, but not as fast as many flagellated species.5. a. Why is the division of Paramecium cells called â€Å"transverse† fission? The plane of separation is transverse to the longitudinal axis.b. Why is transverse fission not a sexual process? it doesn't recombine genesc. What are the advantages and disadvantages of conjugation in Paramecium? disadvantages: conjugation requires more than one organism and is energy consuming advantage: creation of new genetic combinations6. a. What is the value or function of the rapid contraction stalk of Vorticella? avoid predationb. What is the probable function of the moving cilia of Vorticella? create water currents bringing food particles to the organism7. a. Is cytoplasmic movement of Physarum apparent? probably yesb. Is the movement in a particular direction? probably not, but on moist medium they may app arently move toward foodc. What is a possible function of cytoplasmic movement in Physarum? avoid light, find foodExercise 26 SURVEY OF KINGDOM FUNGI: MOLDS, SAC FUNGI, MUSHROOMS, AND LICHENS ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS1. a. Are hyphae present? ob. Are the cells motile? yes2. a. How many species of mold are on the bread? 2, 3, or 4b. Do any of the molds on the bread have hyphae modified as sporangiophores and sporangia? probably yesc. Is pigment distributed uniformly in each mycelium? If not, where is the pigment concentrated in each mold? No, pigment is usually concentrated in sporangia.d. What is the adaptive significance of spores forming on ends of upright filaments rather than closer to the protective substrate? to enhance distribution of released spores3. a. In what structure is the dark pigment of Rhizopus concentrated? sporangiab.Is Rhizopus reproducing sexually as well as asexually in the same petri dish? How can you tell? Yes (if students are provided with cultures with two strai ns); because sporangia as well as zygospores are visible.4. What is the relative size of Penicillium hyphae compared to Rhizopus hyphae? Penicillium hyphae are much smaller than Rhizopus hyphae.5. a. Do you see chains of yeast cells produced by budding? probably yesb. How is the structure of yeast hyphae different from that of molds? Yeast hyphae are greatly reduced to a chain of one or two cells, while molds are very long and multicellular. 6. What is the difference between dikaryotic and diploid cells? Dikaryotic cells have two distinct nuclei, each with a haploid (single) set of chromosomes; a diploid cell has one nucleus with a diploid (double set of chromosomes).7. How many spores would you estimate are present on the gills of a single cap of Coprinus? Remember that a prepared slide shows only a cross section. many, many thousands8. a. What is the value of photosynthetic algae to the growth of a fungus in a lichen? Algae conduct photosynthesis and produce an energy rich carbon source, (i. e. , glucose).b. Would you expect lichens to grow best in rural or urban environments? Why? best in rural environments because they are so sensitive to air pollutionExercise 27 SURVEY OF THE PLANT KINGDOM: LIVERWORTS, MOSSES, AND HORNWORTS OF PHYLA HEPATICOPHYTA, BRYOPHYTA, AND ANTHOCEROPHYTA ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS1. What are the functions of rhizoids? anchorage, possibly absorption2. What is the function of these pores? gas exchange3. How do the positions of the archegonium and antheridium relate to their reproductive function? Antheridia need to disperse sperm and are upright with pores on top of the antheridial disk; archegonia are protected under the surface of the archegonial disk.4. a. What is the function of the foot? nutrient transport from gametophyte to sporophyteb. Are spores haploid or diploid? haploidc. What is the functional significance of the response of elaters to moisture? dispersal of spores5. a. How many cells thick is the leaflet? one or twob. Is there a midrib? Vein? yesc. Are stomata or pores visible on the leaf surface? probably notd. How does the symmetry of a moss gametophyte compare with that of a liverwort gametophyte? Mosses are radially symmetrical and liverworts are bilaterally symmetrical. 6. a. How many times its own weight did the moss absorb? or more timesb. How does this compare with the paper towel? much greaterc. Why is Sphagnum often used in shipping items that must be kept moist? because it holds water so well7. Where is the egg located in the archegonium? egg is enlarged cell at base of neck8. Are sperm haploid or diploid? haploid9. Is the sporophyte more prominent in mosses or liverworts? mosses10. What is the adaptive significance of the seta of the sporophyte growing well above the mat of the gametophyte? better dispersal11. a. What process produces spores? meiosisb. Is the capsule haploid or diploid? diploid12. Can you think of any evolutionary implications of the similarity between a moss protonema and a filamentous green alga? both have similar form and live in similar habitat, which suggests that selective pressures for developing these structures may have been similarExercise 28 SURVEY OF THE PLANT KINGDOM: SEEDLESS VASCULAR PLANTS OF PHYLA PTEROPHYTA, LYCOPHYTA, PSILOPHYTA, AND SPHENOPHYTA ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS1.a. Which parts of the life cycle are haploid? gametophyteb. Which are diploid? sporophyte2.a. How many veins are present in each frond? usually 1 large veinb. What tissues compose a vein? ylem and phloemc. What is the function of the stalk? The blade? The pinnae? stalk—support; blade and pinnae—photosynthesis3.a. What is the function of an annulus? breaking point for opening sporangiumb. Are any spores in the sporangium? probably so4.a. Did the application of acetone cause the spores of the fern to disperse? probably yesb. How is the mechanism for spore dispersal in ferns similar to that of bryophytes? Moisture causes changes in cell (elater or annulus) shap e to release spores.5.a. Is the prothallium haploid or diploid? haploidb. Is the prothallium sporophyte or gametophyte? gametophyte6. a.What is the adaptive significance of having these structures on the lower surface of the prothallium rather than on the upper surface? protection from desiccationb. What is the adaptive significance of having sperm and egg produced at different times? discourages inbreeding7. How do Salvinia and Azolla differ from other ferns you've examined earlier? smaller, aquatic8. a. What type of branching characterizes Psilotum? dichotomousb. Are any roots present? noc. Are any leaves present? nod. Where are the sporangia? at end of short lateral branchese. Where does photosynthesis occur in Psilotum? stem9.a. Where are the leaves? n rings along stemb. What part of the plant is photosynthetic? stemc. Which part of the life cycle of Equisetum is dominant, the sporophyte or gametophyte? sporophyte10.a. How does strobili formation in Equisetum compare with Lycopo dium and Selaginella? sporangia of Lycopodium and Selaginella are on microphyllsb. How do elaters aid in the dispersal of spores? moves spores11. a. How could a rhizome be involved in asexual reproduction? produces new growth, which could be separated from parent plant (e. g. , via fragmentation), thereby resulting in a new individualb. How is a rhizome different from a rhizoid? hizome is underground stem; rhizoid is small, rootlike structurec. Does the rhizome have leaves? depends on specimen, but probably yesd. What is the shape and size of the leaves? thin, elongate, arranged in spiralse. What is the significance of this form of the leaves? intercept light for photosynthesisf. Is a midvein visible? yes g. What does the word â€Å"evergreen† mean? does not lose all of its leaves seasonallyh. Is â€Å"evergreenness† a good characteristic for classifying plants? Why or why not? No, unrelated plants are evergreen.12. a. How many sporangia occur on each sporophyll of Lyc opodium? oneb.Can you see why spores of Lycopodium are sometimes called â€Å"vegetable sulfur†? yesc. Why are the spores a good, dry lubricant? powdery; certain species produce some oild. Which is the dominant part of the Lycopodium life cycle, the sporophyte or gametophyte? sporophyte13. a. Are spores of Selaginella similar in size? nob. What is this condition called? heterosporousc. What is the functional significance of the difference in the appearance of dehydrated and rehydrated Selaginella? water conservation and survival during droughtd. Can you see why these plants are sometimes referred to as â€Å"resurrection plants†? yes

Comparing Rap And Classical Music - 970 Words

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